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In its VaR calculations, JPMorgan Chase uses an expected tail-loss methodology which approximates losses at...

In its VaR calculations, JPMorgan Chase uses an expected tail-loss methodology which approximates losses at the 99% confidence level. This methodology consists of two subsequent steps to estimate the VaR. Which of the following explains this two-step methodology?

A.

After VaR is computed at the 97% confidence level, the expected tail loss in excess of that confidence level is determined, which is then compared with the VaR estimate at the 99% confidence level.

B.

After VaR is computed at the 99% confidence level, the expected tail loss in excess of that confidence level is determined, which is then compared with the VaR estimate at the 98% confidence level.

C.

After VaR is computed at the 99% confidence level, the expected tail loss in excess of that confidence level is determined, which is then compared with the VaR estimate at the 99% confidence level.

D.

After VaR is computed at the 1% confidence level, the expected tail loss in excess of that confidence level is determined, which and is then compared with the VaR estimate at the 98% confidence level.

GARP 2016-FRR Summary

  • Vendor: GARP
  • Product: 2016-FRR
  • Update on: Jul 28, 2025
  • Questions: 387
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