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A 42-year-old man presents for a follow-up visit for mild hypertension.

A 42-year-old man presents for a follow-up visit for mild hypertension. His blood pressure has been consistently elevated over the last 2 visits. In discussion with the patient, you decide to initiate antihypertensives. He had previously been on ramipril and stopped when he developed tongue swelling. His past medical history consists of asthma and hyperlipidemia. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

A.

Metoprolol.

B.

Clonidine.

C.

Hydrochlorothiazide.

D.

Enalapril.

E.

Hydralazine.

Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Summary

  • Vendor: Medical Council of Canada
  • Product: MCCQE
  • Update on: Mar 25, 2026
  • Questions: 348
Price: $52.5  $149.99
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