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A 47-year-old man presents to the office with a 1-month history of passing blood in...

A 47-year-old man presents to the office with a 1-month history of passing blood in his stool 2 to 3 times per week. He is otherwise healthy and denies any systemic symptoms. Other than a small lateral skin tag on digital rectal examination, the physical examination findings are unremarkable. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A.

Fecal immunochemical test (FIT)

B.

Colonoscopy

C.

Computed tomographic colonography

D.

Carcinoembryonic antigen

E.

Rigid sigmoidoscopy

Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Summary

  • Vendor: Medical Council of Canada
  • Product: MCCQE
  • Update on: Jul 22, 2025
  • Questions: 230
Price: $52.5  $149.99
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